浙江省湖州市2020 -2021学年高一下学期期末调研测试卷英语【含答案】

浙江省湖州市2020 -2021学年高一下学期期末调研测试卷英

语

本试卷分第 I 卷（选择题）和第 II 卷（非选择题）。第 I 卷 1 至 8 页，第 II 卷 9 至 10 页。满分 150 分。考试时间 120 分钟。

第 I 卷

注意事项： 1.答第 I 卷时, 考生务必用 2B 铅笔按“正确涂写”要求涂写答题卡。 2.每小题选出答案后, 用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动, 用橡皮擦 干净后, 再选涂其他答案标号。不能答在试卷上。 3.考试结束, 考生将答题卡交回。

第一部分：听力（共两节, 满分 30 分）

第一节 (共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分) 听下面 5 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出 最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关 小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does the man think about exercising at the gym? A. Tiring. B. Useless. 2. Why is the man sneezing? A. Because of the trees. B. Because of his cold. C. Because of the dust.

3. What does the man’s grandfather do now? A. He writes books. B. He sells watches. C. He makes watches.

4. When will the speakers start their vacation? A. On June 9th. B. On June 12th. C. On June 13th.

C. Embarrassing.

5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Which animal to ride.

B. How to look after a pet.

C. Where to spend their holiday.

第二节 (共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分, 满分 22.5 分)

听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个 选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各 个小题, 每小题 5 秒钟；听完后, 各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两 遍。

听第 6 段材料，回答第 6 至 7 题。

6. Which movie is playing at the theater? A. The Grandmaster. B. The New Mutants. 7. What kind of movie is The Grandmaster? A. A comedy. B. A horror movie. C. An action movie.

听第 7 段材料，回答第 8 至 10 题。 8. What’s the relationship between the speakers? A. Brother and sister. B. Father and daughter. C. Salesman and customer.

9. How much does the woman have now? A. $50. B. $100. 10. Where does the conversation take place? A. At a bank.

B. At a coffee shop. C. At a clothing store.

听第 8 段材料，回答第 11 至 13 题。

11. Who is going to China? A. The man. B. The woman. 12. How many people use WhatsApp now? A. Over half a billion. B. Over one billion.

C. Over one and a half billion.

13. What messaging service do Blake and Allison use? A. WhatsApp. B. WeChat.

听第 9 段材料，回答第 14 至 17 题。

C. Shadow.

C. $150.

C. The man’s sister.

C. Telegram.

14. Where is the woman’s class now? A. At a factory. B. At a glass shop.

C. At a neighborhood center.

15. What did people use glass for a long time ago? A. Making tools. B. Making windows.

C. Making medical equipment.

16. Who buy glass items the most probably in ancient times? A. Anybody. B. The rich. 17. What does the woman want to make? A. A cup. B. Eyeglasses.

C. The poor. C. A flower vase.

听第 10 段材料，回答第 18 至 20 题。

18. Where does the speech take place? A. At a factory. B. At a university.

C. At a technology company.

19. What does the speaker think about the future? A. Fewer people will lose their jobs.

B. People will have jobs that robots can’t do. C. Technology will be the top university major.

20. How are computers better than people according to the speaker? A. They can do math faster. B. They don’t take breaks. C. They’re more creative.

第二部分：阅读理解 (共两节，满分 35 分) 第一节（共 10 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 25 分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题 卡上将该项涂黑。

A

Last summer, Katie Steller pulled off the freeway on her way to work in Minneapolis. She stopped at a traffic light, where a man was sitting with a sign asking for help. She rolled down her window and shouted. “Hey. I’m driving around giving free haircuts. Do you want one right now?” The man laughed, then paused. “Actually,” he said, “I was really hoping to get a haircut.” Steller pulled out a red chair from her car and helped the man cut his hair immediately. After the work was done, the man looked in a mirror. “I look good!” he said.

Up to now, Steller has given 30 or so such haircuts around the city to people with little influence, and she is strongly aware of the power of her cleanup job.

As a teen, she suffered from a severe disease, causing her hair to get thinned, so her mother arranged for Steller’s first professional haircut. “To sit down and have somebody look at me and talk to me like a person and not just an illness, it helped me feel cared about and less alone,” she says. After that, Steller knew she wanted to have her own barbershop so she could help people feel the way she’d felt that day. Not long after finishing cosmetology（美容术）school in 2009, she began what she now calls her Red Chair Project, reaching out to people on the streets. Her aim was that by doing some kind acts, others would be inspired to spread their own.

“Part of what broke my heart was just how lonely people looked,” she said. “I thought maybe I’d go around and ask if people want free haircuts. I can’t fix their problems, but maybe I can help them feel less alone for a moment.”

It all began with a belief in simple acts of kindness, such as a free haircut. “The way you show up in the world matters,”said Steller. “You have no idea what people are going to do with the kindness that you give them.”

21. How does the writer begin the passage? A. By making a comparison. C. By raising a question. A. Her mother’s love for her. C. Her care for those in need. A. To spread kindness.

B. To solve social problems. C. To deal with relationships. D. To make people look smarter.

B. By giving a reason. D. By describing a scene.

B. Her interest in cosmetology.

D. Her wish to fight severe diseases.

22. What made Stellar start the Red Chair Project?

23. What did Stellar expect from the project?

B

From Mozart to Metallica, tons of people enjoy listening to various types of music while they paint, write, or draw. Most believe that music helps increase creativity, but an international study conducted by English and Swedish researchers is challenging that view. The study results were echoed by scientists from Lancaster University, and the University of Gavle, saying their findings show music actually weakens creativity.

To reach their conclusions, researchers had volunteers complete verbal( 言 语 ) problems designed to inspire creativity while sitting in a quiet room, and then again while music played in the background. They found that background music significantly weakened the volunteers’ ability to complete tasks connected with verbal creativity. The team also tested background noises like those commonly heard in a library, but found that such noises had no influence on subjects’ creativity.

The tasks were simple word games. For example, volunteers were given three words, such

as dress, rise, and flower. Then, they were asked to find a single word connected with all three that could be combined to form a common phrase or word. The single word, in this case, would be “sun” (sundress, sunrise, sunflower). Volunteers completed the tasks in either a quiet room, or while listening to two different types of music: rock music or light music

“We found strong evidence of weakened performance when playing background music in comparison to quiet background conditions,” says co-author D. Neil McLatchie of Lancaster University. He and his colleagues find that music negatively influences the verbal working memory processes of the brain, preventing creativity. Also, as far as the library background noises having seemingly no effect, the study’s authors believe that was the case because library noises create a “regular state” environment that doesn’t affect concentration.

“To conclude, the findings here challenge the popular view that music increases creativity, and instead show that music, whatever type it is, is always a disadvantage for creative performance in problem solving,” the study reads. 24. The underlined word in Paragraph1 can be replaced by A. challenged B. accepted C. doubted 25. What were the volunteers asked to do in the study? A. To play music. C. To create new words.

.

D. heard

B. To combine given words. D. To connect words with music.

26. What can we infer from the study?

A. Quiet background inspires creativity best. B. Library noise does no harm to creativity. C. Music has a bad effect on language ability. D. Music types matter in creative performance. 27. Which is the main idea of the passage? A. Quiet Environments Prevent Concentration. B. Background Noise Affects Concentration. C. Composing Music Weakens Creativity. D. Listening to Music Reduces Creativity.

C

In the age of social distancing, using robots for some health care interactions is a promising way to reduce in-person contact between health care workers and sick patients. However, a key question is how patients will react to a robot entering the room. Researchers from MIT and Brigham and Women’s Hospital recently set out to answer that question.

In a study, the team found that a large majority of patients reported that interacting with a health care provider through a video screen fixed on a robot was similar to an in-person interaction with a health care worker.

“We’re working on robots that can help provide care to ensure the safety of the patient and the health care workforce. The results of this study give us some confidence that people are ready and willing to join us. In a larger online survey carried out nationwide, we also found that a majority of respondents were open to having robots perform small tasks such as taking a nose swab (拭子).” says Giovanni Traverso，an MIT assistant professor and the senior author of the study.

After the COVID-19 pandemic began early last year,Traverso and his colleagues turned their attention toward new strategies to reduce interactions between potentially sick patients and health care workers. To that end, they created a mobile robot that could interact with patients as they waited in the emergency department. The robots were equipped with sensors that allow them to measure vital signs, including skin temperature, breathing rate, and pulse( 脉搏) rate. The robots also carried an iPad for remote video communication with a health care provider. The study suggests that it could be worthwhile to develop robots that can perform tasks that currently require a lot of human effort, such as turning a patient over in bed. These days, turning COVID-19 patients onto their stomachs requires several people. Doing Covid-19 tests is another task that takes a lot of time and effort from health care workers, who could be arranged for other tasks if robots could help.

28. Why did the researchers from MIT and BWH carry out the studies? A. To shorten the social distance between doctors and patients. B. To figure out the response of patients to robotic doctors. C. To reduce the risk of being infected with coronavirus. D. To ensure the safety of patients during the pandemic. 29. What could be learned from the study? A. Robots are not welcomed by patients. B. Robots will soon replace doctors.

C. Robots may help to deal with Covid-19 patients. D. Robots can operate on different patients.

30. Which of the following is the best title for the text? A. Strengths And Weaknesses In Robot Care B. The Robotic Doctor Will See You Now C. The Robots Speed Up COVID-19 Testing D. The Development Of Robots In Hospitals

第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多 余选项。

Go on the Safest Trip

While travelling, there are many safety measures that all travellers should take, even if they’re heading out a nearby mountain for a camping trip, renting a seaside Airbnb, or choosing any other destination. Advice is highly needed on everything from what to pack to how to protect yourself. 31 Don’t take the unfamiliar road. While part of the joy of exploring nature is seeing new and beautiful views, if your road trip includes a hike, stay on the marked path. Never give in to your curiosity to hike off-trail and in unfamiliar or unmarked areas. “ 32 ” Warned by Dr. Velimir Petkov.

Pack clothing. In the morning, when you set out on your adventure, your temperature will likely be comfortable. As the sun reaches its highest point, you’ll start to sweat inside your car. 33 That’s why experts recommend packing everything you need to stay comfortable, including clothing for different temperatures.

Make sure you get enough sleep. While many people have difficulty sleeping, plenty rest is necessary before a long car ride. “Do not drive while you are feeling sleepy. 34 ” Petkov recommended. He also noted that even if you get the benefits of seven to eight hours of sleep, a little coffee can never hurt.

Protect your skin. You may not consider the sun while sitting in the car. The sunlight can go right through window glass and cause you to burn. 35 Bahar Schmidt, founder of Eluxit Travel Agency, recommends making more efforts to protect your skin with sunscreen and drugs against insects.

A. You could get lost, injured or both. B. It is a wise choice to wear strong shoes.

C. You would never enjoy the views without the tips. D. If you feel like a rest, pull over and take a short break. E. And at night, certain areas experience a sharp drop in degrees. F. And mosquitoes are also drawn when you’re outdoors at night. G. We spoke with travel experts for safety guide to getting on the road.

第三部分: 语言运用（共两节，满分 45 分） 第一节 完形填空（共 20 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分）

阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中, 选出可以填入空白处 的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。

One of the greatest things about getting out of the city is heading into nature and really communing with （与……融为一体）the Earth and wildlife. But sometimes, the 36 finds its way into the city.

A man named Tom Bell lives in London. When he went up to his rooftop to take a break one day, he realized he wasn’ t 37 . But don’t worry. His 38 was of the fuzzy（毛茸茸 的）variety. A wild fox had made its way up to the roof just in time to 39 the sunset. It was

getting 40 and cold, but fortunately, there was a 41 laid out and ready for it! The tired fox just 42 to have a sleep.

Tom quickly 43 the event online with the world and received many 44 . People were obviously 45 by the truly unbothered fox. 46 the lucky man, the fox got up there through the fire escape. A man named Steve even played it some music to make sure the fox had the 47 evening! In fact, London is home to many foxes, 48 not all of them are this cute and beautiful. They’ve come to be called urban foxes and they began to make themselves 49 in London back in the 1930s when the city’ s growth started 50 their natural territory（领地）．And they live in cities all over England. It is 51 that there’s a population of about 33,000 urban foxes in total in the country.

Once Tom shared his 52 house guest, others around London also started 53 photos of their urban foxes! Well, it’ s probably safe to say that we’ re a little envious（羡慕的） of these lucky persons and their fuzzy visitors. It is to see that people and the wilderness can live together 55 .

36. A. sunlight 37. A. awake 38. A. visitor 39. A. overlook 40. A. wet 41. A. map 42. A. wanted 43. A. read 44. A. likes 45. A. encouraged 46. A. Because of 47. A. perfect 48. A. if

49. A. out of danger 50. A. enlarging 51. A. recognized 52. A. imaginary 53. A. posting . A. amusing 55. A. legally

B. road B. away B. neighbor B. follow B. quiet B. blanket B. pretended B. found B. tickets B. attracted B. According to B. eventful B. and

B. above average B. entering B. remembered B. trusted B. collecting B. important B. peacefully

C. photo C. alone C. friend C. catch C. risky C. garden C. happened C. shared C. letters C. confused C. Instead of C. stormy C. or C. on the site C. surrounding C. supposed C. lifelong C. editing C. amazing C. informally

D. wilderness D. alike D. audience D. mark D. dark D. bed

D. continued D. checked D. orders D. supported D. Expect for D. final D. but D. at home D. dividing D. expected D. beloved D. printing D. common D. confidently

第 II 卷

注意事项：

第 I第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分 45 分） I第二节 （共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分, 满分 15 分）

阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1 个单词）或括号中单词的正确形式。 卷 共Humans have been eager to travel to space to learn more about the universe. They make diverse kinds of 56 (vehicle) to carry brave people into space to explore the universe. On October

1957, the Sputnik I satellite 57 (launch) by the USSR and successfully orbited around the Earth. 2 Afterwards, the USSR focused on 58 (send) people into space, and on 12 April 1961, Yuri 页Gagarin became the first person in the world 59 (go) into space. Over eight years later, ,American astronaut Neil Armstrong stepped onto the moon.

用Despite the huge successes, exploring the universe can be dangerous and 60 (challenge). 黑

Some astronauts even lost their lives during their missions to the space. 61 it is risky, 色

people will continue to explore the final frontier. 字

迹China’s space programme started 62 (late) than those of Russia and the US, but it has made rapid progress in a short time. China became the third country in the world to 63 (independent) 的

send humans into space in 2003, Yang Liwei successfully orbited Earth in the 签字Shenzhou 5 spacecraft. Since then, China has made 65 series of achievements in the field of 笔space technology. It’s hoped that future discoveries will make us understand how the universe 或began and also help us survive well into the future. 钢 笔

第四部分：写作（共两节，满分 40 分） 将

第一节：话题微写作（满分15 分） 答

5 个句子按括号内要求翻译并连成一篇微作文。 案将下面

1. 15 号。（significant） 写作为中国最有意义的传统节日之一，元宵节在农历一月的 2. 在不论我们多么忙碌，我们都会聚集在一起庆祝。（no matter） 3答.题 答在试题卷上无效。 5. 如今, 随着商家利用人们庆祝节日，节日变得越来越商业化。（with 复合结构；take 通

advantage of) 常 情 况 下，我 们会以

第二节：应用文写作（满分 25 分）

假定你是李华，你的外籍好友 Henry 学习汉语遇到困难，给你发来一封邮件，想让你 为他推荐一款学习汉语的 APP。请你回信，内容包括：

1. 推荐名称（名称可自拟）； 2. 推荐理由； 3. 表达祝愿。 注意：

1. 词数 80 左右；

2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

（参及评分标准）

第一部分：听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分） 1. C 11. A

2. A 12. C

3. B 13. B

4. C 14. C

5. A 6. B 15. A 16. B

7. C 17. C

8. A 18. B

9. A 19.B

10. C 20. A

第二部分：阅读理解（满分35分） 21. D 31. G

22. C 32. A

23. A 33. E

24. B 34. D

25. C

26. B

27. D

28. B

29. C

30. B

35. F

第三部分：语言运用（每小题1.5分，满分45分） 第一节：完形填空 36. D 46. B 第二节

56. vehicles 57. was launched 58. sending 59. to go 60. challenging 61. Though/Although 62. later 63. independently . when 65. a 第四部分：写作

第一节：话题微写作（满分15分）

①As one of the most significant festivals in China, the Lantern Festival falls/is on the 15th of the first lunar month.②No matter how busy we are, we will gather and celebrate it together.

③It is typical of us to celebrate it in different activities, ranging from guessing riddles to setting off fireworks. ④On that day people admire the lanterns here and there, enjoying the relaxing atmosphere. ⑤These days, with businesses taking advantage of the celebrations, festivals are becoming more and more commercial.

每句评分标准：

1. 结构正确，信息完整，给满分（3分）；

2. 结构正确，信息基本完整，但有一个或两个拼写错误（或时态错误），给2分； 3. 结构正确，信息有遗漏，给2分；

4. 结构不正确，但写出部分重要信息（词汇），给1分； （用不同于参的译文，但意思准确，给满分）

第二节：应用文写作（满分25分） One possible version: Dear Henry,

Knowing that you are faced with some difficulties in Chinese learning, I’d like to recommend an app named Aha Chinese, which enjoys great popularity.

37. C 47. A

38. A 48. D

39. C 49. D

40. D 41. B 50. B 51. C

42. A 52. D

43. C 53. A

44. A . C

45.B 55. B

Aha Chinese is an amazing app, which has an offline mode, so you don’t need an Internet connection. Besides, equipped with abundant examples, this app will give you a glimpse of local expressions. Most importantly, this app combines education and recreation, thus keeping boredom away and getting you motivated.

I am convinced that you are bound to achieve language goals with it.

Yours, Li Hua

一、评分标准：

1. 本题总分为25分，按五个档次给分。

2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量， 确定或调整档次，最后给分。

3. 词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。

4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。

5. 拼写标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程序予以考虑。 英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

6. 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。 二、内容要点：

1. 推荐名称； 2. 推荐理由； 3. 表达祝愿。

三、各档次的给分范围和要求： 第五档：（21~25分）能写明全部要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚。 第四档：（16~20分）能写明全部或绝大部分要点；语言有少量错误；行文不够连贯，表达 基本清楚。 第三档：（11~15分）能写明基本要点；语言虽有较多错误，尚能达意。 第二档：（6~10分）能写出部分要点；语言错误多，影响表达意思。 第一档：（1~5分）只能写出一两个要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子可懂。 三、说明：

1. 内容要点可用不同方式表达。 2. 对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。